this hand is from a 10$-tournament with 1rebuy and 1 addon:
facts:
- half an hour played (the time i bought in)
- the chipleader and villian in this hand had over 25K chips (over 4 times double rebuy)
- it was my first hand in this tourney
- the chipleader seemed to be in every pot but had showed down only very nice hands (i.e. the nuts or very close to it)
- blinds 15/30
my hand:
my stack when the hand started: 3000im in the BB and there a 4 limpers (villian one of them sitting in utg+1), the SB folds and i check my option
flop
it gets checked around
turn
it gets checked around
river
action thereafter: i bet pot (165), the chipleader repots to 660, i re-repot to 2145 and he is shoving the rest and i ofc call
villian shows:
my analysis: some will blame me for 4-betting with and underfull here but from a hand combination perspective its quite reasonable
his 3-bet is consistent with a fullhouse or quads: QQ, Q3, 83, K3, KK or 33
from this combinations i beat 66% (Q3, 83, K3)
i think that villian will 3-bet here with a ALL of his full houses and not only the overfulls (reasoning: rebuys, massive chipstack, run)
i know also that his calling range matters and not his 3-betting range in that respect and ofc his 5-bet is bad news to me (but that was the negligible part of the pot since i was committed anyway ). But his calling range of my 4-bet is imo the same as his 3-betting range out of the above mentioned reasons....
was it a good play? or rather atrocious? every sophisticated answer is welcome

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