A representative hand history:
Consider a full-ring 100NL game with $100 effective stacks. You end up playing a hand with a villain who is capable of raising from early-middle position with a range of something like 55+, AT+, A8s+, KJ+, QJ (about 13.6% of all starting hands). So, he’s not a rock, nor is he a LAG…basically, he tends to overvalue weaker Ax and broadway-type hands. Post-flop, he is more than willing to go to the felt with TPTK and TPGK-type hands, regardless of the flop texture. Of note, he also has check/raised these types of hands from OOP.
The villain makes a PFR to $3.50 from MP2, MP3 calls, and I decide to make a loose call on the button with
.
I don’t want to turn this into a hand-history critique, but I decide to do this based on 3 factors:
1- I’ll have position for the rest of the hand
2- I may encourage SB and BB to enter, making for a nice multiway pot
3- I’m getting very good implied odds, as I’m calling here to try and take the villain’s stack.
4- It ensures a higher probability of closing the betting action, unless SB or BB have a strong hand.
The SB and BB fold, so it’s three players to the flop:
Flop (Pot size: $12):
MP2 (Villain) checks, MP3 checks, Hero bets $8., MP2 raises to $25, MP3 folds, Hero…
So, I flop a strong draw. Villain checks and MP3 checks. Based on Villain’s preflop range (of about 180 starting hands), this flop will improve his hole cards about 75/180 (42%) of the time (I also included KcQc, KcJc, and QcJc as “improved”). I decide to bet here because:
1- The majority of his hands were not helped by this flop.
2- I’m favored to win this hand by the river vs. both his PFR range (57.8% equity) and the hands in that range that were improved by the flop (51% equity). Also, the majority of his hands were not helped by this flop.
3- It will prevent a free card for the villain and MP3, who may be drawing to a stronger flush or stronger straight
4- It will potentially create a squeeze for MP3, further increasing the chances that he’ll fold a stronger draw.
The villain responds by check-raising me to $25. MP3 folds, which is a nice outcome. Although there is a small chance that the villain is doing this check/raise on a bluff/semi-bluff, his flop action indicates that he’s ready and willing to play for his stack.
How best to assess the EV of various lines, then?
Clearly, under these assumptions, I don’t have huge fold equity for a reraise push. I’d guess no more than 10-20% (accounting for bluffs/semibluffs with hands like TT-KK, for example).
The other 90% of the time when he calls, assuming he calls with AA,99,77,A8s+,KcQc,KcJc,QcJc,ATo+, I have 51% equity.
Here’s where things get fuzzled:
The “traditional” way of doing EV calcs:
Villain folds to the push: (0.10)*($45.00) = +$4.50
He calls, you win the current pot + his remaining stack: (0.51)*(0.9)*(+$116.50) = +$53.47
He calls, you lose the remaining $87.50 you pushed: (0.49)*(0.9)*(-$87.50) = -$38.59
Net EV per flop shove line = +$19.38
Looks great, right? Problem is, when everything is said and done, when you both get all-in, your stack will either be $105 larger or $100 smaller!!! The fact that you use your remaining stack and the total money in the pot in the traditional EV “push” assessment artificially inflates the true bottom-line profitability of the move.
In my view, if you’ve committed yourself to playing for stacks (and the villain has, too), this is the way you should address the hand:
Villain folds to the push: (0.10)*($33.50 <portion of flop pot that was not from your stack>) = +$3.35
He calls, you net profit a stack (plus blinds/MP3 pf $): (0.51)*(0.9)*(+$105) = +$48.20
He calls, you net lose a stack: (0.49)*(0.9)*(-$100) = -$44.10
Net EV per flop shove line = +$7.45
Clearly, shoving on the flop is going to be a +EV move. No disputing that. But how +EV it really is depends on what your view of the “end result” should be, right? The traditional EV calculation method gives you a 260% exaggeration of what your true profit per hand would be with this line.
With the traditional EV calculation method, assuming a normal distribution of probability over 100 instances, your profit would be calculated as +$1,938. But, in reality, here’s what you’d have in your bankroll after 100 hands played this way:
10 x Villain folds = 10 x $33.50 = +$335.00
46 x allin, you win: 46 x $105 = +$4830.00
44 x allin, you lose: 44 x $100 = -$4400.00
Net change to bankroll = +$765.00
Thoughts? Did I make some silly calculation error? Was there something else in my beer last night that muddled my analysis?

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